Does every jot and tittle of a majority SCOTUS decision take on the aura of the Pope invoking infallibility? Maybe the infamous footnote four answers that question, but can Congress exercise its right to limit jurisdiction after the damage is done? Or is that the equivalent of ex post fact law?
Does every jot and tittle of a majority SCOTUS decision take on the aura of the Pope invoking infallibility? Maybe the infamous footnote four answers that question, but can Congress exercise its right to limit jurisdiction after the damage is done? Or is that the equivalent of ex post fact law?
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